Cna Final Exam 100 Questions And Answers Quizlet Multiple Choice

Navigating the CNA final exam can feel overwhelming, but with focused preparation and the right resources, you can approach it with confidence. Mastering the material through practice questions and understanding the core concepts are vital steps to success.

Understanding the CNA Final Exam

The Certified Nursing Assistant (CNA) final exam is a comprehensive assessment designed to evaluate your competency in providing basic nursing care. It typically consists of two parts: a written exam and a clinical skills evaluation. The written exam usually comprises multiple-choice questions that test your knowledge of various topics, while the clinical skills evaluation assesses your practical abilities in performing essential nursing tasks. The exam is designed to ensure that all CNAs meet a minimum standard of competence, protecting the well-being of patients and residents in healthcare settings.

Key Areas Covered on the CNA Exam:

Basic Nursing Skills: This includes vital signs measurement (temperature, pulse, respiration, blood pressure), hygiene care (bathing, dressing, oral hygiene), mobility assistance (transferring, ambulation), and basic first aid.
Infection Control: Understanding and implementing proper hand hygiene, using personal protective equipment (PPE), and following isolation precautions are crucial.
Communication Skills: Effective communication with patients, residents, and healthcare team members is essential. This involves active listening, clear verbal and written communication, and understanding non-verbal cues.
Patient Rights and Ethical Considerations: CNAs must be aware of patient rights, including confidentiality, privacy, and the right to refuse treatment. Ethical considerations involve maintaining professional boundaries and respecting patient autonomy.
Safety and Emergency Procedures: Knowing how to prevent falls, respond to emergencies (e.g., choking, cardiac arrest), and follow facility safety protocols is vital.
Mental Health and Social Service Needs: Recognizing signs of depression, anxiety, and other mental health issues, and understanding how to provide emotional support and connect patients with appropriate resources.
Personal Care Skills: Assisting with activities of daily living (ADLs) such as eating, dressing, and toileting, while respecting patient dignity and independence.
Restorative Care: Implementing strategies to help patients regain or maintain their physical and cognitive abilities, such as range of motion exercises and cognitive stimulation activities.

The Importance of Practice Questions

Practice questions are an invaluable tool for CNA exam preparation. They allow you to:

Assess Your Knowledge: Identify areas where you excel and areas that require further study.
Familiarize Yourself with the Exam Format: Become comfortable with the style and structure of the multiple-choice questions.
Improve Your Test-Taking Skills: Learn to manage your time effectively, eliminate incorrect answer choices, and approach questions strategically.
Boost Your Confidence: As you answer practice questions correctly, you'll gain confidence in your abilities and reduce anxiety about the exam.

100 CNA Practice Questions and Answers (Multiple Choice)

Here are 100 multiple-choice questions covering key topics on the CNA exam. After each question, the correct answer is provided, along with a brief explanation.

Basic Nursing Skills

What is the normal range for an adult's oral temperature?
- A) 96.6°F - 98.6°F
- B) 97.6°F - 99.6°F
- C) 98.6°F - 100.6°F
- D) 99.6°F - 101.6°F
- Answer: B) 97.6°F - 99.6°F
- Explanation: The normal range for oral temperature in adults is typically between 97.6°F and 99.6°F (36.4°C and 37.5°C).
Which of the following is the most accurate method for taking a temperature?
- A) Axillary
- B) Oral
- C) Rectal
- D) Tympanic
- Answer: C) Rectal
- Explanation: Rectal temperatures are generally considered the most accurate because they provide a core body temperature reading.
What is the normal range for an adult's pulse rate?
- A) 40-60 beats per minute
- B) 60-100 beats per minute
- C) 80-120 beats per minute
- D) 100-140 beats per minute
- Answer: B) 60-100 beats per minute
- Explanation: The normal resting heart rate for adults is typically between 60 and 100 beats per minute.
Where is the most common site to take a pulse?
- A) Radial artery
- B) Brachial artery
- C) Carotid artery
- D) Femoral artery
- Answer: A) Radial artery
- Explanation: The radial artery, located on the thumb side of the wrist, is the most easily accessible and commonly used site for taking a pulse.
What is the normal range for an adult's respiratory rate?
- A) 8-12 breaths per minute
- B) 12-20 breaths per minute
- C) 20-28 breaths per minute
- D) 28-36 breaths per minute
- Answer: B) 12-20 breaths per minute
- Explanation: The normal respiratory rate for adults is typically between 12 and 20 breaths per minute.
What is the first thing a CNA should do when taking a blood pressure?
- A) Position the arm at heart level
- B) Inflate the cuff quickly
- C) Place the stethoscope over the brachial artery
- D) Deflate the cuff rapidly
- Answer: A) Position the arm at heart level
- Explanation: Positioning the arm at heart level ensures an accurate blood pressure reading.
What is the normal range for an adult's systolic blood pressure?
- A) 90-120 mmHg
- B) 100-130 mmHg
- C) 120-140 mmHg
- D) 140-160 mmHg
- Answer: A) 90-120 mmHg
- Explanation: A normal systolic blood pressure reading is typically between 90 and 120 mmHg.
What is the normal range for an adult's diastolic blood pressure?
- A) 50-70 mmHg
- B) 60-80 mmHg
- C) 70-90 mmHg
- D) 80-100 mmHg
- Answer: B) 60-80 mmHg
- Explanation: A normal diastolic blood pressure reading is typically between 60 and 80 mmHg.
When giving a bed bath, what area should the CNA wash first?
- A) Legs and feet
- B) Face
- C) Perineal area
- D) Back
- Answer: B) Face
- Explanation: When giving a bed bath, start with the face to avoid transferring microorganisms from dirtier areas to cleaner areas.
What is the proper water temperature for a bed bath?
- A) Cool
- B) Tepid
- C) Warm
- D) Hot
- Answer: C) Warm
- Explanation: The water should be warm enough to be comfortable but not hot enough to cause burns or discomfort.

Infection Control

What is the single most important thing a CNA can do to prevent the spread of infection?
- A) Wear gloves
- B) Wash hands
- C) Wear a mask
- D) Use hand sanitizer
- Answer: B) Wash hands
- Explanation: Proper hand hygiene is the most effective way to prevent the spread of infection.
When should a CNA wear gloves?
- A) When touching clean linens
- B) When assisting with meals
- C) When there is a risk of contact with body fluids
- D) When talking to a patient
- Answer: C) When there is a risk of contact with body fluids
- Explanation: Gloves should be worn whenever there is a risk of contact with blood, body fluids, mucous membranes, or broken skin.
What is the correct order for putting on personal protective equipment (PPE)?
- A) Gloves, gown, mask
- B) Mask, gloves, gown
- C) Gown, mask, gloves
- D) Mask, gown, gloves
- Answer: C) Gown, mask, gloves
- Explanation: The correct order is gown, mask, and then gloves, to ensure maximum protection.
What is the correct order for removing personal protective equipment (PPE)?
- A) Gloves, mask, gown
- B) Gown, gloves, mask
- C) Gloves, gown, mask
- D) Mask, gown, gloves
- Answer: C) Gloves, gown, mask
- Explanation: The correct order is gloves, gown, and then mask, to minimize the risk of self-contamination.
What is the purpose of an isolation room?
- A) To provide a quiet space for patients
- B) To prevent the spread of infection
- C) To store medical supplies
- D) To allow patients privacy
- Answer: B) To prevent the spread of infection
- Explanation: Isolation rooms are used to separate patients with contagious diseases from other patients and healthcare workers.

Communication Skills

Which of the following is an example of nonverbal communication?
- A) Speaking loudly
- B) Writing a note
- C) Making eye contact
- D) Asking a question
- Answer: C) Making eye contact
- Explanation: Nonverbal communication includes body language, facial expressions, and eye contact.
What is the best way for a CNA to communicate with a patient who has a hearing impairment?
- A) Shout loudly
- B) Speak slowly and clearly
- C) Cover your mouth
- D) Turn away while speaking
- Answer: B) Speak slowly and clearly
- Explanation: Speaking slowly and clearly, while facing the patient, can help them understand you better.
What should a CNA do if a patient does not speak the same language?
- A) Speak loudly and slowly
- B) Use gestures and pictures
- C) Ignore the patient
- D) Ask another patient to translate
- Answer: B) Use gestures and pictures
- Explanation: Using gestures and pictures can help bridge the communication gap until a translator is available.
What is an important aspect of active listening?
- A) Interrupting the speaker
- B) Thinking about what you will say next
- C) Paying attention to the speaker
- D) Giving advice
- Answer: C) Paying attention to the speaker
- Explanation: Active listening involves focusing on the speaker, showing that you are engaged, and understanding their message.
What is the importance of reporting observations to the nurse?
- A) To gossip about patients
- B) To ensure proper care and treatment
- C) To avoid doing your job
- D) To complain about patients
- Answer: B) To ensure proper care and treatment
- Explanation: Reporting observations to the nurse is essential for monitoring the patient's condition and adjusting care as needed.

Patient Rights and Ethical Considerations

What is a patient's right to privacy?
- A) The right to have visitors at any time
- B) The right to refuse treatment
- C) The right to have their medical information kept confidential
- D) The right to choose their own doctor
- Answer: C) The right to have their medical information kept confidential
- Explanation: Patients have the right to have their medical information protected and kept private.
What is the term for unlawfully confining a patient?
- A) Neglect
- B) Abuse
- C) False imprisonment
- D) Assault
- Answer: C) False imprisonment
- Explanation: False imprisonment is unlawfully restricting a person's freedom of movement.
What is the term for threatening to harm a patient?
- A) Battery
- B) Assault
- C) Negligence
- D) Defamation
- Answer: B) Assault
- Explanation: Assault is threatening to harm a person, making them fear for their safety.
What is the term for physically harming a patient?
- A) Assault
- B) Battery
- C) Neglect
- D) Abuse
- Answer: B) Battery
- Explanation: Battery is the intentional touching of a person without their consent, resulting in harm.
What is the role of an ombudsman?
- A) To provide medical care
- B) To investigate and resolve patient complaints
- C) To administer medications
- D) To supervise CNAs
- Answer: B) To investigate and resolve patient complaints
- Explanation: An ombudsman is an advocate for residents in long-term care facilities, investigating and resolving complaints on their behalf.

Safety and Emergency Procedures

What is the first thing a CNA should do if a patient falls?
- A) Help the patient up immediately
- B) Call for the nurse
- C) Move the patient to a safer location
- D) Document the fall
- Answer: B) Call for the nurse
- Explanation: Call for the nurse to assess the patient's condition and provide appropriate medical care.
What is the purpose of a gait belt?
- A) To restrain a patient
- B) To help a patient walk safely
- C) To protect the patient's clothing
- D) To prevent the patient from talking
- Answer: B) To help a patient walk safely
- Explanation: A gait belt provides a secure grip for the CNA to assist the patient with ambulation and prevent falls.
What is the Heimlich maneuver used for?
- A) To stop bleeding
- B) To clear an obstructed airway
- C) To perform CPR
- D) To treat a seizure
- Answer: B) To clear an obstructed airway
- Explanation: The Heimlich maneuver is used to dislodge an object from the airway of a choking person.
What does RACE stand for in fire safety?
- A) Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
- B) Run, Alert, Contain, Evacuate
- C) Remove, Assist, Confine, Evaluate
- D) React, Announce, Control, Exit
- Answer: A) Rescue, Alarm, Contain, Extinguish
- Explanation: RACE is a mnemonic for the steps to take in the event of a fire: Rescue patients, Activate the alarm, Contain the fire, and Extinguish the fire if possible.
What does PASS stand for when using a fire extinguisher?
- A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
- B) Push, Activate, Spray, Secure
- C) Protect, Alert, Suppress, Shield
- D) Prevent, Announce, Stop, Secure
- Answer: A) Pull, Aim, Squeeze, Sweep
- Explanation: PASS is a mnemonic for the steps to use a fire extinguisher: Pull the pin, Aim at the base of the fire, Squeeze the handle, and Sweep from side to side.

Mental Health and Social Service Needs

What is a sign of depression in a patient?
- A) Increased appetite
- B) Socializing more frequently
- C) Loss of interest in activities
- D) Increased energy levels
- Answer: C) Loss of interest in activities
- Explanation: Loss of interest in activities, also known as anhedonia, is a common symptom of depression.
What should a CNA do if a patient is feeling anxious?
- A) Tell the patient to calm down
- B) Ignore the patient
- C) Listen to the patient and offer support
- D) Leave the patient alone
- Answer: C) Listen to the patient and offer support
- Explanation: Listening to the patient's concerns and providing emotional support can help alleviate anxiety.
What is reality orientation?
- A) Telling patients what they want to hear
- B) Helping patients remember who they are, where they are, and what time it is
- C) Arguing with patients about their delusions
- D) Ignoring patients' confusion
- Answer: B) Helping patients remember who they are, where they are, and what time it is
- Explanation: Reality orientation is a technique used to help confused or disoriented patients stay grounded in reality.
What is validation therapy?
- A) Correcting a patient's false beliefs
- B) Acknowledging and accepting a patient's feelings and beliefs
- C) Arguing with a patient's delusions
- D) Ignoring a patient's emotions
- Answer: B) Acknowledging and accepting a patient's feelings and beliefs
- Explanation: Validation therapy involves accepting and validating a patient's feelings, even if they are not based in reality.
What is the role of social services in a healthcare facility?
- A) To provide medical care
- B) To assist patients with their emotional, social, and financial needs
- C) To administer medications
- D) To supervise CNAs
- Answer: B) To assist patients with their emotional, social, and financial needs
- Explanation: Social services can help patients access resources, such as counseling, financial assistance, and support groups.

Personal Care Skills

How often should a patient's position be changed to prevent pressure ulcers?
- A) Every 4 hours
- B) Every 2 hours
- C) Every 6 hours
- D) Every 8 hours
- Answer: B) Every 2 hours
- Explanation: Frequent repositioning helps relieve pressure on bony prominences and prevent the development of pressure ulcers.
What is the proper way to clean the perineal area?
- A) From back to front
- B) From front to back
- C) Using the same area of the washcloth for each stroke
- D) Rinsing with hot water
- Answer: B) From front to back
- Explanation: Cleaning from front to back helps prevent the spread of bacteria from the anal area to the urinary tract.
What is the first step in assisting a patient with dressing?
- A) Choose the patient's clothes
- B) Encourage the patient to do as much as possible
- C) Dress the weaker side first
- D) Dress the stronger side first
- Answer: B) Encourage the patient to do as much as possible
- Explanation: Encourage the patient to participate as much as they can to promote independence and maintain their abilities.
What is the proper position for feeding a patient?
- A) Lying flat
- B) Reclined at 45 degrees
- C) Sitting upright
- D) Standing
- Answer: C) Sitting upright
- Explanation: Sitting upright reduces the risk of choking and aspiration.
What should a CNA do if a patient refuses to eat?
- A) Force the patient to eat
- B) Report the refusal to the nurse
- C) Ignore the refusal
- D) Offer the patient different foods
- Answer: B) Report the refusal to the nurse
- Explanation: Report the refusal to the nurse so they can assess the reason for the refusal and take appropriate action.

Restorative Care

What is the purpose of range of motion (ROM) exercises?
- A) To strengthen muscles
- B) To improve circulation
- C) To prevent contractures and maintain joint mobility
- D) To relieve pain
- Answer: C) To prevent contractures and maintain joint mobility
- Explanation: ROM exercises help keep joints flexible and prevent stiffness and contractures.
What is the difference between active and passive ROM exercises?
- A) Active ROM is done by the CNA, and passive ROM is done by the patient
- B) Active ROM is done by the patient, and passive ROM is done by the CNA
- C) Active ROM is more effective than passive ROM
- D) Active ROM is done with weights, and passive ROM is done without weights
- Answer: B) Active ROM is done by the patient, and passive ROM is done by the CNA
- Explanation: In active ROM, the patient moves their own joints, while in passive ROM, the CNA moves the patient's joints for them.
What is the purpose of ambulation?
- A) To keep patients in bed
- B) To prevent complications of immobility
- C) To restrict patient movement
- D) To punish patients
- Answer: B) To prevent complications of immobility
- Explanation: Ambulation helps prevent complications such as pneumonia, blood clots, and muscle weakness.
What is the purpose of rehabilitation?
- A) To cure diseases
- B) To restore a patient to their highest possible level of functioning
- C) To provide comfort care
- D) To keep patients in the hospital
- Answer: B) To restore a patient to their highest possible level of functioning
- Explanation: Rehabilitation aims to help patients regain their independence and improve their quality of life after an illness or injury.
What is the importance of encouraging independence in patients?
- A) To make the CNA's job easier
- B) To help patients maintain their self-esteem and dignity
- C) To save time
- D) To avoid providing care
- Answer: B) To help patients maintain their self-esteem and dignity
- Explanation: Encouraging independence helps patients feel in control of their lives and maintain a sense of self-worth.

Nutrition and Hydration

What is an important consideration when feeding a patient with dysphagia?
- A) Serve hot foods
- B) Rush the patient
- C) Provide thick liquids
- D) Allow the patient to talk while eating
- Answer: C) Provide thick liquids
- Explanation: Thick liquids are easier to swallow for patients with dysphagia, reducing the risk of aspiration.
What is dehydration?
- A) Too much fluid in the body
- B) Not enough fluid in the body
- C) A type of infection
- D) A type of medication
- Answer: B) Not enough fluid in the body
- Explanation: Dehydration occurs when the body loses more fluids than it takes in.
What is a sign of dehydration?
- A) Increased urination
- B) Moist skin
- C) Dark urine
- D) Increased energy
- Answer: C) Dark urine
- Explanation: Dark urine is a sign that the body is not getting enough fluids.
How can a CNA encourage a patient to drink more fluids?
- A) Force the patient to drink
- B) Offer fluids frequently
- C) Restrict fluids
- D) Ignore the patient's thirst
- Answer: B) Offer fluids frequently
- Explanation: Offer fluids regularly throughout the day to help patients stay hydrated.
What is the purpose of a therapeutic diet?
- A) To make patients gain weight
- B) To provide nutrients for specific health conditions
- C) To punish patients
- D) To save money on food costs
- Answer: B) To provide nutrients for specific health conditions
- Explanation: Therapeutic diets are designed to meet the specific nutritional needs of patients with conditions such as diabetes, heart disease, or kidney disease.

Elimination

What is the term for difficulty urinating?
- A) Polyuria
- B) Dysuria
- C) Hematuria
- D) Anuria
- Answer: B) Dysuria
- Explanation: Dysuria means painful or difficult urination.
What is the term for frequent urination?
- A) Dysuria
- B) Oliguria
- C) Polyuria
- D) Anuria
- Answer: C) Polyuria
- Explanation: Polyuria refers to the production of abnormally large volumes of dilute urine.
What is the term for blood in the urine?
- A) Dysuria
- B) Oliguria
- C) Polyuria
- D) Hematuria
- Answer: D) Hematuria
- Explanation: Hematuria is the presence of blood in the urine.
What is the term for no urine production?
- A) Dysuria
- B) Oliguria
- C) Polyuria
- D) Anuria
- Answer: D) Anuria
- Explanation: Anuria is the failure of the kidneys to produce urine.
What is the importance of keeping the perineal area clean and dry for incontinent patients?
- A) To save time
- B) To prevent skin breakdown and infection
- C) To punish patients
- D) To avoid providing care
- Answer: B) To prevent skin breakdown and infection
- Explanation: Keeping the perineal area clean and dry helps prevent skin irritation, pressure ulcers, and infections.

Endocrine System

Which hormone is affected with diabetes?
- A) Estrogen
- B) Insulin
- C) Testosterone
- D) Progesterone
- Answer: B) Insulin
- Explanation: Diabetes is a metabolic disorder caused by either the pancreas not producing enough insulin or the body not properly using the insulin it produces.
What is hyperglycemia?
- A) Low blood sugar
- B) High blood sugar
- C) Normal blood sugar
- D) No blood sugar
- Answer: B) High blood sugar
- Explanation: Hyperglycemia is a condition in which the blood has too much glucose.
What is hypoglycemia?
- A) Low blood sugar
- B) High blood sugar
- C) Normal blood sugar
- D) No blood sugar
- Answer: A) Low blood sugar
- Explanation: Hypoglycemia, also known as low blood sugar, occurs when the level of glucose in the blood drops too low.
What is a sign of hyperglycemia?
- A) Sweating
- B) Hunger
- C) Blurred Vision
- D) Shakiness
- Answer: C) Blurred Vision
- Explanation: Blurred vision is a sign of hyperglycemia.
What is a sign of hypoglycemia?
- A) Sweating
- B) Hunger
- C) Blurred Vision
- D) Warm, dry skin
- Answer: A) Sweating
- Explanation: Sweating is a sign of hypoglycemia.

Musculoskeletal System

What is osteoporosis?
- A) Weakening of the bones
- B) Strengthening of the bones
- C) Inflammation of the joints
- D) Dislocation of the bones
- Answer: A) Weakening of the bones
- Explanation: Osteoporosis is a medical condition in which the bones become brittle and fragile from loss of tissue.
What is arthritis?
- A) Weakening of the bones
- B) Strengthening of the bones
- C) Inflammation of the joints
- D) Dislocation of the bones
- Answer: C) Inflammation of the joints
- Explanation: Arthritis is the inflammation of one or more joints, causing pain and stiffness that can worsen with age.
What is abduction?
- A) Moving a body part toward the midline of the body
- B) Moving a body part away from the midline of the body
- C) Bending a body part
- D) Straightening a body part
- Answer: B) Moving a body part away from the midline of the body
- Explanation: Abduction is the movement of a limb or other body part away from the midline of the body.
What is adduction?
- A) Moving a body part toward the midline of the body
- B) Moving a body part away from the midline of the body
- C) Bending a body part
- D) Straightening a body part
- Answer: A) Moving a body part toward the midline of the body
- Explanation: Adduction is the movement of a limb or other body part toward the midline of the body.
What is flexion?
- A) Moving a body part toward the midline of the body
- B) Moving a body part away from the midline of the body
- C) Bending a body part
- D) Straightening a body part
- Answer: C) Bending a body part
- Explanation: Flexion decreases the angle between bones.

Respiratory System

What is pneumonia?
- A) Inflammation of the lungs
- B) Blockage of the airway
- C) Heart failure
- D) Kidney failure
- Answer: A) Inflammation of the lungs
- Explanation: Pneumonia is an infection that inflames the air sacs in one or both lungs. The air sacs may fill with fluid or pus (purulent material), causing cough with phlegm or pus, fever, chills, and difficulty breathing.
What is chronic bronchitis?
- A) Inflammation of the bronchi
- B) Enlargement of the alveoli
- C) Narrowing of the airways
- D) Destruction of lung tissue
- Answer: A) Inflammation of the bronchi
- Explanation: Chronic bronchitis is an inflammation of the lining of the bronchial tubes, which carry air to and from the lungs.
What is emphysema?
- A) Inflammation of the lungs
- B) Enlargement of the alveoli
- C) Narrowing of the airways
- D) Destruction of lung tissue
- Answer: B) Enlargement of the alveoli
- Explanation: Emphysema is a lung condition that causes shortness of breath. In people with emphysema, the air sacs in the lungs (alveoli) are damaged. Over time, the inner walls of the air sacs weaken and rupture — creating larger air spaces instead of many small ones.
What is asthma?
- A) Inflammation of the bronchi
- B) Enlargement of the alveoli
- C) Narrowing of the airways
- D) Destruction of lung tissue
- Answer: C) Narrowing of the airways
- Explanation: Asthma is a condition in which your airways narrow and swell and may produce extra mucus. This can make breathing difficult and trigger coughing, wheezing and shortness of breath.
What is the purpose of oxygen therapy?
- A) To increase carbon dioxide levels in the blood
- B) To decrease oxygen levels in the blood
- C) To provide supplemental oxygen
- D) To treat infections
- Answer: C) To provide supplemental oxygen
- Explanation: Oxygen therapy provides supplemental oxygen to people who have trouble getting enough oxygen on their own.

Cardiovascular System

What is hypertension?
- A) Low blood pressure
- B) High blood pressure
- C) Normal blood pressure
- D) No blood pressure
- Answer: B) High blood pressure
- Explanation: Hypertension is a condition in which the blood pressure in the arteries is elevated.
What is hypotension?
- A) Low blood pressure
- B) High blood pressure
- C) Normal blood pressure
- D) No blood pressure
- Answer: A) Low blood pressure
- Explanation: Hypotension is abnormally low blood pressure.
What is coronary artery disease (CAD)?
- A) Narrowing of the arteries
- B) Enlargement of the heart
- C) Weakening of the heart muscle
- D) Inflammation of the heart lining
- Answer: A) Narrowing of the arteries
- Explanation: Coronary artery disease is a condition in which the coronary arteries become narrowed or blocked, usually due to the buildup of plaque.
What is congestive heart failure (CHF)?
- A) Narrowing of the arteries
- B) Enlargement of the heart
- C) Weakening of the heart muscle
- D) Inflammation of the heart lining
- Answer: C) Weakening of the heart muscle
- Explanation: Congestive heart failure is a chronic progressive condition that affects the pumping power of your heart muscles.
What is a myocardial infarction (MI)?
- A) Blockage of blood flow to the heart
- B) Enlargement of the heart
- C) Weakening of the heart muscle
- D) Inflammation of the heart lining
- Answer: A) Blockage of blood flow to the heart
- Explanation: A myocardial infarction is a blockage of blood flow to the heart muscle, also known as a heart attack.

Nervous System

What is a stroke?
- A) Blockage of blood flow to the brain
- B) Enlargement of the brain
- C) Weakening of the brain tissue
- D) Inflammation of the brain lining
- Answer: A) Blockage of blood flow to the brain

Cna Final Exam 100 Questions And Answers Quizlet Multiple Choice

Table of Contents

Understanding the CNA Final Exam

The Importance of Practice Questions

100 CNA Practice Questions and Answers (Multiple Choice)

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